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pengd0t
2004-08-02, 01:41
I've read from several sources that the jews of the old testament had an ergot bread that they would eat at certain occasions. I'm not sure how it was prepared to get around ergot poisoning, but maybe even that will be cleared up in this discussion.



There has also been quite a lot said about the possibility, and from what I've read, probability that psilocybin containing mushrooms were what the Israelites consumed as manna. http://www.christianmyth.com/MushManna.htm

I know the jews fasted for long periods, which would lower the glucose level in the body tremendously and after a long enough time, give rise to hallucinations much like those of psychedelic substances.

I came across an excellent example of this a couple of weeks ago in the book of Daniel. Daniel is fasting and has been for about a month, he is beside the Tigris river (Hiddekel). Running water would be a generator of plenty of white noise, which would encourage hallucinations in anyone in a psychedelic state like what Daniel was getting to after his long period of depriving his body of glucose. Anyone whose experienced any kind of psychedelic trip might notice that the passage makes a lot more sense in this context.

Chap 10 v.2-6

In those days I Daniel was mourning three full weeks. I ate no pleasant bread, neither came flesh nor wine into my mouth, neither did I anoint myself at all, till three whole weeks were fulfilled. And in the four and twentieth day of the first month, as I was by the side of the great river, which is Hidekkel; Then I lifted up mine eyes, and looked, and behold a certain man clothed in linen, whose loins were girded about with fine gold of Uphaz: his body was also like beryl, his face as the appearance of lightning, and his eyes as lamps of fire, and his arms and his feet like in color to polished brass, and the voice of his words like the voice of a multitude.



I've heard that the jews also practice(d) whipping themselves to induce visions, by overwhelming the brain with endorphins I assume.



For a long time, whenever I read or heard of anyone in the bible having a "vision," I just understood it to be one of those bible terms for something I guess I never really thought about what it was. But when all these practices of the jews are observed it makes much more sense. I know the jews placed a lot of importance on what was revealed to them in dreams, so I guess they didn't hesitate to use any ways to induce these dreamlike states while awake. Of course this also has implications on the source of their revelations.



Anyone know something I don't, or wish to refute something I've said?

evolove
2004-08-02, 08:56
The human body can, does produce it's own white noise, it is utilised often in yoga, called Omkara or Anahata

Pow r T och
2004-08-02, 10:33
Just means to an end.

pengd0t
2004-08-05, 06:16
Well I guess you're right evolove, I've never really thought about that.