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Hare_Geist
2007-06-15, 11:29
I remember that when I was young, I was taught two statements as Christian doctrine that, to me, seem to contradict one another: (A) that hell is the absence of God; and (b) that God is everywhere. So if I am not mistaken, the logical argument below shows that it necessarily cannot be both but must be one or the other.

(1) hell is absence of God
(2) if God is everywhere, then hell cannot exist
(3) God is everywhere
(4) therefore, hell does not exist

I was also told that because God is the perfect being, everything he does and says is perfect and therefore his moral propositions are absolute, but God being the perfect being does not entail absolute morality nor perfect actions (which includes saying things, for to say something is to act).

Being perfect equals being faultless, the best, the unsurpassed. To be objectively perfect, however, the perfect thing must be objectively measurable. Knowing all equals knowing everything, including what is the case, what is not the case, what can be the case and what cannot be the case. This means knowing all equals knowing the most, this means it is unsurpassable, objectively measurable and perfect. Being able to do everything possible equals being all-powerful and is unsurpassable, therefore that is objectively measurable and perfect too; although it must be stressed that being all-powerful does not entail being able to do anything, like, for example, breaking logic.

However, for reasons I shall state in a moment, morality is not commensurable and if this is the case, then perfect actions are not commensurable and God can do things that appear to us and him as mistakes (such as the creation of man and the flood). Before I go on to show ethics to be incommensurable, I must address something I am sure people are questioning: the statement that God makes mistakes. To be ‘imperfect’ is to make ‘mistakes’. However, one must remember we’re talking of things that are objectively measurable, therefore if ethics and actions are incommensurable, then it will only subjectively appear to be a mistake to whoever views it as a mistake, based on their emotions and preferences.

Now, knowing all does not entail knowing what is objectively good if such a thing as absolute morality is impossible (and I’m going to argue that it is impossible), although it does equal knowing what is best if you want consequence Y to happen or consequence X to happen. Being able to do the most does not entail being able to do any thing, such as defy logic and create contradictions. It also does not entail always doing the ‘morally best thing’ if the ‘morally best thing’ is subjective. Also, being able to do the most does not entail doing perfect actions if perfect actions do not exist.

Here is the reason morals and actions cannot be objectively perfect: because if God created everything, then it would result in circular logic. In Plato’s Euthyphro, Socrates poses the question: “is the pious loved by the Gods because it is pious or is it pious because it is loved by the Gods?” In Islam, Muslims generally believe it is good because God says so and therefore believe in divine command theory, whilst in ancient Greek, the Greeks believed the good was already there and therefore the Gods didn’t create it. Christians generally try to have it both ways, which results in a logical circle: “it’s good because I say so and I say so because it’s good” or “p implies q, q implies p, suppose p, therefore q, therefore p”.

If, then, God does not have the ability to break logic (and remember that being unsurpassable in power does not equal being able to do any thing), then it is one or the other. You can argue, using Genesis, that he did not create the good by statements such as ‘“God saw that it was good”(Genesis 1:10)’. But this obviously implies, then, that God did not in fact create everything. Therefore, God can no longer be a ‘god of the gaps’ and a prime mover that created everything, which I don’t think would go too well with Christians who, if they cannot accept this, would have to accept divine command theory. Divine command theory, however, is an appeal to authority and is therefore a logical fallacy, plus it entails having to accept that God is possibly lying to you (but then again, so does the opposite, since we cannot know for sure what absolute morality is and would have to just be taking God’s word for it, when it could oddly be morally absolute for him to lie and send all to hell).

Also, morality existing independently of God would raise the same problem for Christians as it does for atheists: how is morality possible independent of a living being's subjective state of mind? You know this is the case, considering Christians generally ask atheists: "but without God, where do you get your morals from?"

Of course there is a way out of this: arguing that God can in fact do any thing, and therefore that God can defy the rules of logic. But this entails the same problems: God could be a perfect being, and evil, and he could be screwing everyone over. Therefore, once again, we end up with the only thing that I can think of that would make such religions possible: strict fideism. Of course, this entails believing in non-falsifiable, non-verifiable statements unquestionably, possibly causing all kinds of ‘atrocities’ and fucking up your critical thinking skills, but when has that ever bothered the religious?

I also was told that abortion was wrong, but surely, using Christian doctrine I was taught combined with utilitarianism, infant genocide can be justified?

(1) there exists two places called heaven and hell
(2) heaven is preferable to hell
(3) you either go to heaven or hell, but cannot go to both
(4) if and only if the accountable accept Jesus as saviour and lord of their life, will they go to heaven
(5) you are an accountable if and only if you are above the age of x and are of sound mind
(6) the unaccountable go to heaven by default
(7) if a Christian asks for Jesus to forgive them, then Jesus will forgive them
(8) if an unaccountable becomes an accountable, then the chances of them going to hell instead of heaven necessarily increases
(9) therefore, to increase utility, it is best if Christians kill all children and abort all foetuses, in so doing, sending them to heaven and keeping them from risk of hell, and then asking Jesus for forgiveness.

Of course, this argument supposes hell exists and can be refuted by my argument for the non-existence of hell. But then, surely, the only possibility when one dies is heaven, and therefore all of this suffering on earth can easily be cut short… of course, you can say God can do any thing, but I’ve not seen any arguments for this and so it would have to rely upon strict fideism, but then again my arguments suppose he cannot break the rules of logic, but they only do that to draw all the logical conclusions and therefore would have to be accepted if he cannot break the rules of logic. Also, doesn’t the Bible reject fideism by saying one can and must prove God’s existence?

Anyways, I just figured that these three ideas I’d been kicking around would make for some good arguments.

Cytosine
2007-06-15, 12:27
Very fascinating - I can see that you put a lot of thought into this over a fairly long time.

Christian doctrine, as with any religious doctrine, is completely and utterly useless. They in no way give anyone tangible morals that they shouldn't already have as sane members of the human race. I've also wondered about the heaven argument a fair bit. I once asked a Christian why she didn't just kill herself since she was "saved" and could ask for forgiveness. We don't speak anymore.

Either way, I hope idiots stay out of this and people with more knowledge of Christian doctrine than I possess can comment.

Lion eats man
2007-06-15, 15:19
Hmm.. to me the problem seems to be #1

if you put it after #3 like so:

(3) God is everywhere
(1) hell is absence of God
(2) if God is everywhere, then hell cannot exist
(4) therefore, hell does not exist

It does not imply that hell does not exist, but rather a hell absent of God does not exist. #4 is based on the assumption that a hell absent of God is the only hell.

So shouldn't it go like this?:
1.)God is everywhere
2.)Hell is absence of God
2.)If God is everywhere, then a hell absent of God cannot exist
4.)Therefore, a hell absent of God does not exist

Maybe you were taught wrong? Psalms 139:7-8 (http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Psalm%20139:7-8;&version=9;), seems to negate the notion of a hell absent of God.

Hare_Geist
2007-06-15, 16:04
Maybe you were taught wrong?

I was possibly taught wrong about hell, but that doesn't refute everything else I said (just to make that clear, because there's some idiots in here who think that if you refute one part, you've refuted all of it). Also, I didn't have to rewrite the logical argument because in the argument, the definition of the one and only hell was 'absence of God'. I might try and find some passages that back up the view of hell I was taught then, because there's probably some in the Bible (there seems to be passages that can back up anything).

PS, does Psalms really count, when it's just a collection of 'songs to a harp'? Considering they're just poems to God, supposedly written by David, surely they're taken figuratively and not as the word of God.

Pilsu
2007-06-15, 16:47
Teachings and actual Bible tend to drastically differ. Fascinating religion really, it's own followers' teachings aren't always even based on it's own book, they just pull it out of their ass or distort some passage and claim it's written

Lion eats man
2007-06-15, 17:53
I was possibly taught wrong about hell, but that doesn't refute everything else I said (just to make that clear, because there's some idiots in here who think that if you refute one part, you've refuted all of it).

This wasn't my intention, I only wanted to refute the hell part because I didn't want to read everything else you said :D, I don't know if there's a correlation between the two. So I'll just focus on this for now and look at that later.


Also, I didn't have to rewrite the logical argument because in the argument, the definition of the one and only hell was 'absence of God'.

I don't have to rewrite the argument, I rewrote it because it expresses my point more clear.

Here I'll keep the same order:
(1) hell is absence of God So hell = absence of God, so I can replace hell with the absence of God
(2) if God is everywhere, then the absence of God cannot exist. Right.
(3) God is everywhere. Yes.
(4) therefore, the absence of God does not exist.

#4 concludes that there is no hell because hell = absence of God. But me and you know that there is a possibility that this definition of hell is wrong.


I might try and find some passages that back up the view of hell I was taught then, because there's probably some in the Bible (there seems to be passages that can back up anything).

Yes, I was going to ask you if you could show me the passages that back up this point of view on hell.



PS, does Psalms really count, when it's just a collection of 'songs to a harp'? Considering they're just poems to God, supposedly written by David, surely they're taken figuratively and not as the word of God.
Yes Psalms does count. (http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20Timothy%203:16&version=9)


Teachings and actual Bible tend to drastically differ. Fascinating religion really, it's own followers' teachings aren't always even based on it's own book, they just pull it out of their ass or distort some passage and claim it's written

Please keep this to yourself. I had a discussion with someone already about this, and it was settled that a majority of Christian denominations have unbiblical practices/teachings, but not all.

KikoSanchez
2007-06-15, 18:05
I also was told that abortion was wrong, but surely, using Christian doctrine I was taught combined with utilitarianism, infant genocide can be justified?

(1) there exists two places called heaven and hell
(2) heaven is preferable to hell
(3) you either go to heaven or hell, but cannot go to both
(4) if and only if the accountable accept Jesus as saviour and lord of their life, will they go to heaven
(5) you are an accountable if and only if you are above the age of x and are of sound mind
(6) the unaccountable go to heaven by default
(7) if a Christian asks for Jesus to forgive them, then Jesus will forgive them
(8) if an unaccountable becomes an accountable, then the chances of them going to hell instead of heaven necessarily increases
(9) therefore, to increase utility, it is best if Christians kill all children and abort all foetuses, in so doing, sending them to heaven and keeping them from risk of hell, and then asking Jesus for forgiveness.



Of course, this assumes one accepts some tenets of utilitarianism, nonetheless this is one the most beautiful things I've ever seen. I didn't read it thoroughly to analyze its validity or soundness, but I'll just assume it's good and make it part of my rhetoric :)

The only 'flaw' I see is that most people would respond that it would be the end of human existence if we killed off all new children/fetuses. Of course, if we are hardcore utilitarians are first priority is to minimize suffering and if this means never letting another soul enter the eternal damnation of hell by means of not letting new souls be created, so be it. This sort of hardline utilitarianism, unfortunately, most people would find ridiculous when weighed against the continuance of human existence, go figure.

Hare_Geist
2007-06-15, 19:58
But me and you know that there is a possibility that this definition of hell is wrong.

No, it does not need to be changed to refute hell if hell is nothing but the absence of God. It's a valid argument whose intention was to refute the existence of hell if hell was defined by Christian doctrine as nothing but the absence of God. However, you did raise a good question about its soundness, but this has now become nothing but silly semantics that's detracting from the thread. If I were you, I personally would have just posted the passage and asked for passages to be posted that supports the contrary view of hell as absence of God.

Yes Psalms does count. (http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20Timothy%203:16&version=9)

That would include the very verse making said statement and is therefore a circular argument.

Lion eats man
2007-06-15, 20:25
No, it does not need to be changed to refute hell if hell is nothing but the absence of God. It's a valid argument whose intention was to refute the existence of hell if hell was defined by Christian doctrine as nothing but the absence of God. However, you did raise a good question about its soundness, but this has now become nothing but silly semantics that's detracting from the thread. If I were you, I personally would have just posted the passage and asked for passages to be posted that supports the contrary view of hell as absence of God.

You're right, my mistake.

nshanin
2007-06-16, 01:09
If only I had you guys when I was debating lion earlier... who knows?

SAMMY249
2007-06-16, 02:21
I didnt read all that there was really no need because all I need to read was "(1) hell is absence of God" seeing as the Bible dosnt say that (if im not mistaken it was just something the pope pulled out of his ass) it would have just been a waste of my time to read that.

Hare_Geist
2007-06-16, 09:13
I didnt read all that there was really no need because all I need to read was "(1) hell is absence of God" seeing as the Bible dosnt say that (if im not mistaken it was just something the pope pulled out of his ass) it would have just been a waste of my time to read that.

I was hoping the idiots would stay out of this thread. The three thoughts are barely intertwined and stand alone.

In fact, to quote an earlier post of mine:

I was possibly taught wrong about hell, but that doesn't refute everything else I said (just to make that clear, because there's some idiots in here who think that if you refute one part, you've refuted all of it).

So GTFO, you condescending simpleton.

SAMMY249
2007-06-16, 20:26
Most of that post was crap and I said I didnt read it so you could have simply said "If you would have read it you would have known blah blah blah" but instead you decided to be an ass just so you could call people names.

Kooper0
2007-06-16, 21:15
Most of that post was crap

I said I didnt read it

So how would you know?

SAMMY249
2007-06-16, 21:51
So how would you know?

When I said I didnt read it i was refering to my original post when I said I didnt read it since Hare's comments I have read it and my conclusion was that it was crap, so I wrote it. As for explaining why I think its crap its not going to happen because you cant comprehend the English language so explaining that to you would just be a waste of time.

Kooper0
2007-06-16, 23:37
When I said I didnt read it i was refering to my original post when I said I didnt read it since Hare's comments I have read it and my conclusion was that it was crap, so I wrote it. As for explaining why I think its crap its not going to happen because you cant comprehend the English language so explaining that to you would just be a waste of time.

In other words, you're not going to explain why it's crap because you can't. Also, I don't think you're anyone to comment on comprehension of English.

Rizzo in a box
2007-06-17, 01:16
God gave you free-will so you could choose "heaven" or "hell". You don't have proper definitions.

A) Hell is a state of being which is being apart from God
B) God is everywhere
C) God gave you free-will
D) To experience hell, you must actively choose to experience it

nshanin
2007-06-17, 08:41
God gave you free-will so you could choose "heaven" or "hell". You don't have proper definitions.

A) Hell is a state of being which is being apart from God
B) God is everywhere
C) God gave you free-will
D) To experience hell, you must actively choose to experience it

Do you mean experience it, or seek it out? If I was in hell and I didn't feel like experiencing hell, would that mean that I wouldn't experience it? Maybe I'm a bit slow here, but I'm not sure I know what you're saying.

Rizzo in a box
2007-06-17, 08:53
Do you mean experience it, or seek it out? If I was in hell and I didn't feel like experiencing hell, would that mean that I wouldn't experience it? Maybe I'm a bit slow here, but I'm not sure I know what you're saying.

I mean both: suffering observed is suffering no more.

oc6
2007-06-18, 12:06
God gave you free-will so you could choose "heaven" or "hell". You don't have proper definitions.

A) Hell is a state of being which is being apart from God
B) God is everywhere
C) God gave you free-will
D) To experience hell, you must actively choose to experience it

If God is everywhere then how could one be "apart from God"?

God gives us "free-will", but does that make us free?

Rizzo in a box
2007-06-18, 22:20
If God is everywhere then how could one be "apart from God"?

God gives us "free-will", but does that make us free?

You choose to convince yourself that you are apart from God. You never really are, but since you experience a subjective reality, you control it!

God gave you the freedom to be free, or to not be free.

nshanin
2007-06-22, 09:17
God gave you the freedom to be free, or to not be free.

But how would I be able to be not free if I have the freedom to make that decision? MINDFUCK!

But seriously, please explain.