Pingy
2008-12-07, 02:17
I'm having trouble proving the implication rule for SD+
I need to show that:
L => M is equivalent to ~L v M.
I got the proof the other way around, this one is just bugging me.
Here is the kicker, I can only use the rules of SD, not SD+, which are the basic logical operator introduction and elimination rules.
I guess I would try to get ~L first and use Disjunction Introduction to get ~L v M.
The problem is getting ~L. I tried assuming L, but I'm having trouble finding a contradiction.
Any ideas??
I need to show that:
L => M is equivalent to ~L v M.
I got the proof the other way around, this one is just bugging me.
Here is the kicker, I can only use the rules of SD, not SD+, which are the basic logical operator introduction and elimination rules.
I guess I would try to get ~L first and use Disjunction Introduction to get ~L v M.
The problem is getting ~L. I tried assuming L, but I'm having trouble finding a contradiction.
Any ideas??